PMP Interview Questions & Answers

Question 1. What Is The Primary Risk When Including Reserves Or Contingency Allowances In Your Cost Estimate?

Answer :

Contingency funds are used to handle cost uncertainty due to unforeseen purchases that may be needed during a project. These funds are generally used for items that are likely to occur but are not certain to occur.

Question 2. Which Of The Following Statements Most Accurately Describes A Project Scenario?

Answer :

Staffing is typically highest during the execution phase of the project. The other three responses may not hold true. Projects can move forward into subsequent phases without the deliverables of the prior phase being completely approved; this is known as fast tracking. Changes during the initial phases of the project are the least expensive. The influence of the stakeholders is highest during the start of the project and declines as the project moves to completion.

Question 3. Which Of The Following Is Not An Organizational Process Asset That Is Used During The Plan Human Resource Management Process?

Answer :

Standardized stakeholder list is not a valid organizational asset used in the Plan Human Resource Management process. The other choices are valid assets. Other assets include historical information on organizational structures that have worked in previous projects and organizational processes and policies.

Question 4. The Perform Integrated Change Control Process Includes Several Configuration Management Activities. Which Of The Following Is Not A Configuration Management Activity?

Answer :

Change request is not a valid response. The configuration management activities included in the Perform Integrated Change Control process are: Configuration Identification, Configuration Status

Question 5. What Is The Logical Sequence Of The Project Scope Management Processes?

Answer :

The logical sequence of the six scope management processes is:

Plan Scope Management, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Create WBS, Validate Scope and Control Scope.

Question 6. Which Of The Following Is A Hierarchical Representation Of Project Risks?

Answer :

The Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) is a hierarchical presentation of the project risks sorted by risk categories.

Question 7. Which Of The Following Is A Tool Or Technique Used In The Monitor And Control Project Work Process?

Answer :

Expert Judgment is a tool or technique used in the Monitor and Control Project Work process.

Question 8. Which Of These Types Of Precedence Relationships Is Least Commonly Used In The Precedence Diagramming Method?

Answer :

Start to Finish relationships indicate that the next task cannot be completed until the one preceding it has started. This type is not commonly used.

Question 9. Which Of The Following Should You Not Use As An Input Into Creating The Wbs Structure?

Answer :

The Bill of Material (BOM) is not used as an input in the Create WBS process. The other three are valid inputs.

Question 10. Which Term Best Describes The Identify Risks Process?

Answer :

The Identify Risks process is an ongoing, iterative process as risks are often identified throughout the project’s life cycle.

Question 11. Which Of These Processes Is Not A Project Time Management Process?

Answer :

Create WBS is a process in the Project Scope Management area. The other options are all Project Time Management processes.

Question 12. The Technique Most Commonly Used By Project Management Software Packages To Construct A Project Schedule Network Diagram Is?

Answer :

The method used by most project management software packages to construct a project schedule network diagram is Activity-On-Node (AON). This method uses boxes and rectangles, called nodes, to represent activities. It connects the nodes with arrows showing the logical relationships among them.

Question 13. Which Of The Following Defines The Total Scope Of The Project And Represents The Work Specified In The Current Approved Project Scope Statement?

Answer :

The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the work to be performed by the project team. It defines the total scope of the project. It represents the work specified in the currently approved project scope statement.

Question 14. Which Of These Precedence Relationships Is Most Commonly Used In The Precedence Diagramming Method?

Answer :

Finish-to-Start relationships indicate that the next task is not able to start until the one preceding it is completed. This is the most commonly used type of activity relationship.

Question 15. An Effective Quality Audit Should Be?

Answer :

To provide the best results, a quality audit should be a structured process performed by an independent entity.

Question 16. What Is The Traditional Way To Display A Reporting Structure Among Project Team Members?

Answer :

A hierarchical-type organizational chart can clearly show roles and reporting relationships within a team.

Question 17. In An Ongoing Project, The Project Sponsor And A Manager Of The Performing Organization Are Having Conflicts. What Would Be Your Comment On This Situation?

Answer :

The project manager needs to recognize that the stakeholders may have conflicting interests and objectives. It is the responsibility of the project manager to manage the stakeholders’ expectations successfully.

Question 18. Project Risks Should Be Identified By?

Answer :

While it is not possible to invite everyone to the risk identification meetings, everyone should be encouraged to identify risks as they encounter them.

Question 19. A Control Chart Should Always Contain?

Answer :

Upper and lower control limits allow the control chart to serve its purpose of indicating when a process is in or out of control.

Question 20. When Would Rolling Wave Planning Be Useful In A Project?

Answer :

Rolling Wave Planning is a technique used to create a more detailed work plan while keeping the right level of detail for each activity: Activities happening sooner have more detail than those further in the future.

Question 21. Which Of The Following Is An Input To The Develop Project Team Process?

Answer :

Resource calendars are inputs to the Develop Project Team process.

Question 22. Successful Conflict Management Results In?

Answer :

Successful conflict management results in greater productivity and positive working relationships.

Question 23. Which Of The Following Is An Enterprise Environmental Factor?

Answer :

Commercial databases are considered enterprise environmental factors. The other choices are organizational process assets.

Question 24. Which Of The Following Is A Classical Organizational Structure?

Answer :

A functional organization is a classical organizational structure.

Question 25. Which Of The Following Is Not A Project Competing Constraint?

Answer :

Six competing project constraints are scope, quality, schedule, budget, resources and risk. Procurement is not a project competing constraint.

Question 26. Which Of These Tools Is Not A Part Of The Seven Basic Tools Of Quality?

Answer :

The seven basic tools of quality are:

Cause and effect diagrams, control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, check sheets, and scatter diagrams.

Question 27. Which Quality Control Technique Or Tool Should Be Used When Trying To Determine The Cause Of A Major Defect?

Answer :

A fishbone diagram, also called a cause-and-effect diagram, helps identify potential causes of an issue or problem.

Question 28. Why Is It Important To Have A Staff Release Plan For People Within The Project Team?

Answer :

A staff release plan provides a clean break point for an individual and saves the project money in the process.

Question 29. Which Of These Is Not An Approved Estimate Activity Durations Technique?

Answer :

Analogous, parametric, and three-point estimating techniques are all accepted practices for determining the correct amount of time required for a portion of the project. The Critical Path Analysis techniques evaluate the whole project schedule.

Question 30. Which Of The Following Is Incorrectly Represented By The Term Progressive Elaboration?

Answer :

The distinction between progressive elaboration and scope creep needs to be understood since the two terms are different. The changes to scope (especially in an uncontrolled manner) are called scope creep. In contrast, progressive elaboration involves building on or elaborating the output of a previous phase.

Question 31. Which Document Describes The Project’s Deliverables And The Work Required To Create Those Deliverables?

Answer :

The project scope statement is the correct response. This document describes the project’s deliverables in detail and the work that is required to create those deliverables. It also forms the baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes are within or outside the project’s boundaries.

Question 32. Which Of These Items Are Important To Address When Determining Each Person’s Role In The Project Team?

Answer :

All four of these are important to consider when considering someone for a position within the project team: Role, authority, responsibility, and competency.

Question 33. When Beginning A New Outsourcing Project, What Is The Best Way To Determine From Which Companies You Should Request A Bid?

Answer :

A qualified seller list is a list of sellers that have been pre-screened for their qualifications and experience, so that procurements are directed only to likely sellers who can work on the project.

Question 34. Which Of These Is Not A Risk Diagramming Technique?

Answer :

Risk diagramming techniques include: Cause-and-effect diagrams (also known as fishbone diagrams), flowcharts, and influence diagrams.

Question 35. What Does A Cost Performance Index (cpi) Of More Than 1.0 Indicate?

Answer :

The CPI is calculated as the earned value divided by the actual cost. An index of greater than one indicates that you have spent less than you forecasted to this point.

Question 36. Which Of The Following Items Needs To Be Kept In Mind When Relying On Risk Identification Checklists?

Answer :

While the risk identification checklist is a useful tool, it should be used in combination with the other tools, since it is impossible to cover all scenarios in one checklist.

Question 37. What Is The Advantage Of Preparing An Estimate Of Costs By An Outside Professional Estimator?

Answer :

An estimate of costs will serve as a benchmark on proposed responses. Any significant differences in cost estimates can be an indication that the procurement statement of work was deficient or ambiguous, or that the prospective sellers failed to understand the work.

Question 38. Which Of The Following May Help In Ensuring That Certain Bidders In The Procurement Process Do Not Receive Preferential Treatment And That All Prospective Sellers Have A Clear And Common Understanding Of The Procurement?

Answer :

Bidder conferences allow prospective sellers and buyers to meet prior to submission of a bid. This ensures that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. This usually prevents any bidders from receiving preferential treatment.