Do you have effective communication skills to face the interview? Do you have exposure and ability to solve real time problems? Recruiters are not only looking for academically sound candidates but also with above qualities. So, move on to wisdom jobs online site which gives you latest updates. PMP (project management professional) certification is an internationally recognized and widely accepted as a benchmark by project managers across the globe. As a project manager, he needs to plan, budget oversee and document all aspects of specific project you are working on. Project managers work closely with higher authorities to ensure that the scope and direction of each project is on schedule, as well as other departments for support. Candidates who want to work as a project manager can have a look at the below listed PMP job interview questions and answers.
Answer :
Contingency funds are used to handle cost uncertainty due to unforeseen purchases that may be needed during a project. These funds are generally used for items that are likely to occur but are not certain to occur.
Question 2. Which Of The Following Statements Most Accurately Describes A Project Scenario?
Answer :
Staffing is typically highest during the execution phase of the project. The other three responses may not hold true. Projects can move forward into subsequent phases without the deliverables of the prior phase being completely approved; this is known as fast tracking. Changes during the initial phases of the project are the least expensive. The influence of the stakeholders is highest during the start of the project and declines as the project moves to completion.
Answer :
Standardized stakeholder list is not a valid organizational asset used in the Plan Human Resource Management process. The other choices are valid assets. Other assets include historical information on organizational structures that have worked in previous projects and organizational processes and policies.
Answer :
Change request is not a valid response. The configuration management activities included in the Perform Integrated Change Control process are: Configuration Identification, Configuration Status
Question 5. What Is The Logical Sequence Of The Project Scope Management Processes?
Answer :
The logical sequence of the six scope management processes is:
Plan Scope Management, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Create WBS, Validate Scope and Control Scope.
Question 6. Which Of The Following Is A Hierarchical Representation Of Project Risks?
Answer :
The Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) is a hierarchical presentation of the project risks sorted by risk categories.
Answer :
Expert Judgment is a tool or technique used in the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
Answer :
Start to Finish relationships indicate that the next task cannot be completed until the one preceding it has started. This type is not commonly used.
Question 9. Which Of The Following Should You Not Use As An Input Into Creating The Wbs Structure?
Answer :
The Bill of Material (BOM) is not used as an input in the Create WBS process. The other three are valid inputs.
Question 10. Which Term Best Describes The Identify Risks Process?
Answer :
The Identify Risks process is an ongoing, iterative process as risks are often identified throughout the project’s life cycle.
Question 11. Which Of These Processes Is Not A Project Time Management Process?
Answer :
Create WBS is a process in the Project Scope Management area. The other options are all Project Time Management processes.
Answer :
The method used by most project management software packages to construct a project schedule network diagram is Activity-On-Node (AON). This method uses boxes and rectangles, called nodes, to represent activities. It connects the nodes with arrows showing the logical relationships among them.
Answer :
The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the work to be performed by the project team. It defines the total scope of the project. It represents the work specified in the currently approved project scope statement.
Answer :
Finish-to-Start relationships indicate that the next task is not able to start until the one preceding it is completed. This is the most commonly used type of activity relationship.
Question 15. An Effective Quality Audit Should Be?
Answer :
To provide the best results, a quality audit should be a structured process performed by an independent entity.
Answer :
A hierarchical-type organizational chart can clearly show roles and reporting relationships within a team.
Answer :
The project manager needs to recognize that the stakeholders may have conflicting interests and objectives. It is the responsibility of the project manager to manage the stakeholders’ expectations successfully.
Question 18. Project Risks Should Be Identified By?
Answer :
While it is not possible to invite everyone to the risk identification meetings, everyone should be encouraged to identify risks as they encounter them.
Question 19. A Control Chart Should Always Contain?
Answer :
Upper and lower control limits allow the control chart to serve its purpose of indicating when a process is in or out of control.
Question 20. When Would Rolling Wave Planning Be Useful In A Project?
Answer :
Rolling Wave Planning is a technique used to create a more detailed work plan while keeping the right level of detail for each activity: Activities happening sooner have more detail than those further in the future.
Question 21. Which Of The Following Is An Input To The Develop Project Team Process?
Answer :
Resource calendars are inputs to the Develop Project Team process.
Question 22. Successful Conflict Management Results In?
Answer :
Successful conflict management results in greater productivity and positive working relationships.
Question 23. Which Of The Following Is An Enterprise Environmental Factor?
Answer :
Commercial databases are considered enterprise environmental factors. The other choices are organizational process assets.
Question 24. Which Of The Following Is A Classical Organizational Structure?
Answer :
A functional organization is a classical organizational structure.
Question 25. Which Of The Following Is Not A Project Competing Constraint?
Answer :
Six competing project constraints are scope, quality, schedule, budget, resources and risk. Procurement is not a project competing constraint.
Question 26. Which Of These Tools Is Not A Part Of The Seven Basic Tools Of Quality?
Answer :
The seven basic tools of quality are:
Cause and effect diagrams, control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, check sheets, and scatter diagrams.
Answer :
A fishbone diagram, also called a cause-and-effect diagram, helps identify potential causes of an issue or problem.
Question 28. Why Is It Important To Have A Staff Release Plan For People Within The Project Team?
Answer :
A staff release plan provides a clean break point for an individual and saves the project money in the process.
Question 29. Which Of These Is Not An Approved Estimate Activity Durations Technique?
Answer :
Analogous, parametric, and three-point estimating techniques are all accepted practices for determining the correct amount of time required for a portion of the project. The Critical Path Analysis techniques evaluate the whole project schedule.
Question 30. Which Of The Following Is Incorrectly Represented By The Term Progressive Elaboration?
Answer :
The distinction between progressive elaboration and scope creep needs to be understood since the two terms are different. The changes to scope (especially in an uncontrolled manner) are called scope creep. In contrast, progressive elaboration involves building on or elaborating the output of a previous phase.
Answer :
The project scope statement is the correct response. This document describes the project’s deliverables in detail and the work that is required to create those deliverables. It also forms the baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes are within or outside the project’s boundaries.
Answer :
All four of these are important to consider when considering someone for a position within the project team: Role, authority, responsibility, and competency.
Answer :
A qualified seller list is a list of sellers that have been pre-screened for their qualifications and experience, so that procurements are directed only to likely sellers who can work on the project.
Question 34. Which Of These Is Not A Risk Diagramming Technique?
Answer :
Risk diagramming techniques include: Cause-and-effect diagrams (also known as fishbone diagrams), flowcharts, and influence diagrams.
Question 35. What Does A Cost Performance Index (cpi) Of More Than 1.0 Indicate?
Answer :
The CPI is calculated as the earned value divided by the actual cost. An index of greater than one indicates that you have spent less than you forecasted to this point.
Answer :
While the risk identification checklist is a useful tool, it should be used in combination with the other tools, since it is impossible to cover all scenarios in one checklist.
Answer :
An estimate of costs will serve as a benchmark on proposed responses. Any significant differences in cost estimates can be an indication that the procurement statement of work was deficient or ambiguous, or that the prospective sellers failed to understand the work.
Answer :
Bidder conferences allow prospective sellers and buyers to meet prior to submission of a bid. This ensures that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. This usually prevents any bidders from receiving preferential treatment.
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